Regarding the actual acts involved in pederasty, Boswell assumes that a sexual act is directly linked to sexuality. While this can work in many cases in the story, there are exceptions. Think of the ruling classes in Europe, it was their duty to marry and produce an heir; they may not have wanted it, but society expects it of them. I'm sure there has been more than one man throughout history who married and procreated despite being exclusively attracted to his same sex. Would we consider these individuals heterosexual? I would say no, despite these acts they commit they are still very homosexual. The last point I will discuss is Boswell's interpretation of the ancient text, particularly the myth of Aristophanes in Plato's Symposium. It states that: “Its manifest and stated purpose is to explain why human beings are divided into predominantly homosexual and heterosexual interest groups. It is strongly implied that these interests are both exclusive and innate” (Boswell, 12). This serves as evidence to support his claim that although there was no appropriate term for homosexuality in ancient Greece, it was observed and used to classify society into two groups of people based on